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Do you know about the passing score, duration, and question for the NCLEX-RN exam?
- Languages: English
- Exam Format: Multiple choice
- Passing score: 95% confidence interval
- No. of questions: minimum of 75 questions, and a maximum of 265 questions
- Duration Exam: 6 Hours
NCLEX-RN exam is computerized and adaptive, meaning that the difficulty level of the exam adjusts based on a nurse's performance. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to be challenging, and many nurses find it to be a stressful experience. However, the NCLEX-RN is an essential step for nurses who wish to enter the workforce and begin practicing as registered nurses. With proper preparation and study, nurses can feel confident and well-prepared to pass the exam and begin their careers in nursing.
NEW QUESTION # 117
Due to his prolonged history of alcohol abuse, an alcoholic client will most likely have deficiencies of which of the following nutrients?
- A. Folic acid and niacin
- B. Vitamin C and zinc
- C. Thiamine and pyroxidine
- D. Vitamin A and biotin
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Chronic alcoholism can lead to deficiencies of B complex vitamins including thiamine and pyroxidine. (B) Chronic alcoholism can lead to deficiencies of vitamins A, D, K, and B complex. (C) Chronic alcoholism can lead to deficiencies of vitamins A, D, K, and B complex. (D) Vitamins A, D, K, and B require bile salts to be absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. A damaged liver does not form bile salts.
NEW QUESTION # 118
The pediatrician has diagnosed tinea capitis in an 8- year-old girl and has placed her on oral griseofulvin. The nurse should emphasize which of these instructions to the mother and/or child?
- A. Discontinue drug therapy if food tastes funny.
- B. May discontinue medication when the child experiences symptomatic relief.
- C. Observe for headaches, dizziness, and anorexia.
- D. Administer oral griseofulvin on an empty stomach for best results.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Giving the drug with or after meals may allay gastrointestinal discomfort. Giving the drug with a fatty meal (ice cream or milk) increases absorption rate. (B) Griseofulvin may alter taste sensations and thereby decrease the appetite. Monitoring of food intake is important, and inadequate nutrient intake should be reported to the physician. (C) The child may experience symptomatic relief after 48-96 hours of therapy. It is important to stress continuing the drug therapy to prevent relapse (usually about 6 weeks). (D) The incidence of side effects is low; however, headaches are common. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia may occur. Dizziness, although uncommon, should be reported to the physician.
NEW QUESTION # 119
A 67-year-old man had a physical examination prior to beginning volunteer work at the hospital. A routine chest x-ray demonstrated left ventricular hypertrophy. His blood pressure was 180/110. He is 45 lb overweight. His diet is high in sodium and fat. He has a strong family history of hypertension. The client is placed on antihypertensive medication; a low-sodium, low-fat diet; and an exercise regimen. On his next visit, compliance would best
be determined by:
- A. A blood pressure reading of 130/70 with a 5-lb weight loss
- B. Serum blood levels of the antihypertensive medication within therapeutic range
- C. No side effects from antihypertensive medication and an accurate pill count
- D. No evidence of increased left ventricular hypertrophy on chest x-ray
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) A blood pressure within acceptable range best demonstrates compliance, but weight loss cannot be accomplished without adherence to medication, diet, and exercise. (B) Absence of side effects does not indicate compliance with medication. Pill counts can be misleading because the client can alter pill counts prior to visit. (C) Left ventricular hypertrophy is not an accurate measure of compliance because hypertrophy frequently does not decrease even with pharmacological management. (D) Therapeutic blood levels measure the drug level at the time of the test. There is no indication of compliance several days before testing.
NEW QUESTION # 120
A 29-year-old client is admitted for a hysterectomy. She has repeatedly told the nurses that she is worried about having this surgery, has not slept well lately, and is afraid that her husband will not find her desirable after the surgery. Shortly into the preoperative teaching, she complains of a tightness in her chest, a feeling of suffocation, lightheadedness, and tingling in her hands. Her respirations are rapid and deep. Assessment reveals that the client is:
- A. Having a heart attack
- B. Suffering from complete upper airway obstruction
- C. Wanting attention from the nurses
- D. Hyperventilating
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Classic symptoms of a heart attack include heaviness or squeezing pain in the chest, pain spreading to the jaw, neck, and arm. Nausea and vomiting, sweating, and shortness of breath may be present. The client does not exhibit these symptoms. (B) Clients suffering from anxiety or fear prior to surgical procedures may develop hyperventilation. This client is not seeking attention. (C) Symptoms of complete airway obstruction include not being able to speak, and no airflow between the nose and mouth. Breath sounds are absent. (D) Tightness in the chest; a feeling of suffocation; lightheadedness; tingling in the hands; and rapid, deep respirations are signs and symptoms of hyperventilation. This is almost always a manifestation of anxiety.
NEW QUESTION # 121
A client is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse should be prepared to administer which of the following IV solutions?
- A. 0.9 normal saline
- B. D5W
- C. D5in lactated Ringer's
- D. D5in normal saline
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) D5in normal saline would increase serum glucose. (B) D5W would increase serum glucose. (C) A concentration of 0.9 NS is used to correct extracellular fluid depletion. (D) D5in Ringer's lactate would increase serum glucose.
NEW QUESTION # 122
The nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis for a client in acute renal failure - Impaired gas exchange related to:
- A. Increased levels of vitamin D
- B. Decreased red blood cell production
- C. Decreased production of renin
- D. Increased red blood cell production
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) Red blood cell production is impaired in renal failure owing to impaired erythropoietin production. This causes a decrease in the delivery of oxygen to the tissue and impairs gas exchange. (B) The conversion of vitamin D to its physiologically active form is impaired in renal failure. (C) In renal failure, a decrease in red blood cell production occurs owing to an impaired production of erythropoietin, leading to impaired gas exchange at the cellular level. (D) The decreased production of renin in renal failure causes an increased production of aldosterone causing sodium and water retention.
NEW QUESTION # 123
A psychotic client who believes that he is God and rules all the universe is experiencing which type of delusion?
- A. Grandiose
- B. Somatic
- C. Nihilistic
- D. Persecutory
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) These delusions are related to the belief that an individual has an incurable illness. (B) These delusions are related to feelings of self-importance and uniqueness. (C) These delusions are related to feelings of being conspired against. (D) These delusions are related to denial of self-existence.
NEW QUESTION # 124
The physician decides to prescribe both a short-acting insulin and an intermediate-acting insulin for a newly diagnosed 8-year-old diabetic client. An example of a short-acting insulin is:
- A. Protamine zinc insulin
- B. Lente Beef
- C. Humulin NPH
- D. Novolin Regular
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Novolin is a short-acting insulin. (B, C) NPH and Lente are intermediate-acting insulins. (D) Protamine zinc insulin is a long-acting insulin preparation.
NEW QUESTION # 125
In healthcare settings, nurses must be familiar with primary, secondary, and tertiary levels of care. As a nurse in the community, which of the following interventions might be a primary prevention strategy?
- A. Teaching fifth-grade children the harmful effects of substance abuse
- B. Crisis intervention with an intoxicated teenager whose mother just committed suicide
- C. Counseling a client with post-traumatic stress disorder
- D. Referring a client who has been on a detoxification unit to a rehabilitation center
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The teenager is already coping ineffectively and requires early detection and treatment, which is secondary prevention. (B) The client must be sent to a rehabilitation unit, which requires tertiary prevention. (C) Reducing the incidence of disease through education supports primary prevention. (D) A client with identified symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder requires intervention by treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 126
A client has received preoperative teaching for the vertical partial laryngectomy that he is scheduled to have in the morning. The nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the client states:
- A. "I know I will need special swallowing training after my surgery."
- B. "I may also have to have a radical neck dissection done."
- C. "I will have very little difficulty swallowing after surgery."
- D. "The quality of my voice will be excellent after surgery."
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) A client with a supraglottic (horizontal partial) laryngectomy would require special swallowing training, not a vertical partial laryngectomy. (B) The quality of the client's voice will be altered but adequate for communication. (C) The client will have minimal difficulty swallowing. (D) A radical neck dissection may be done with a total laryngectomy, but not with a partial laryngectomy.
NEW QUESTION # 127
A 47-year-old client has been admitted to the general surgery unit for bowel obstruction. The doctor has ordered that an NG tube be inserted to aid in bowel de-compression. When preparing to insert a NG tube, the nurse measures from the:
- A. Tip of the nose to the lower lip to the umbilicus
- B. End of the tube to the first measurement line on the tube
- C. Tip of the nose to the ear lobe to the xiphoid process or midepigastric area
- D. Lower lip to the shoulder to the upper sternum
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This measurement is _50 cm (48-49 cm). Fifty centimeters is considered the length necessary for the distal end of the tube to be in place in the stomach. This measurement is too short. (B) This measurement is _50 cm (47-48 cm). Fifty centimeters is considered the lengthnecessary for the distal end of the tube to be in place in the stomach. This measurement is too short. (C) This measurement gives an approximate indication of the length necessary for the distal end of the tube to be in place in the stomach, but it is not as accurate as actually measuring the client (nose-earxiphoid). (D) This is the correct measurement of 50 cm from the tip of the client's nose to the tip of the earlobe to the xiphoid process (called the NEX [nose-ear- xiphoid] measurement). It is approximately equal to the distance necessary for the distal end of the tube to be located in the correct position in the stomach.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A laboring client presents with a prolapsed cord. The nurse should immediately place the client in what position?
- A. Trendelenburg
- B. Sims'
- C. Reverse Trendelenburg
- D. Fowler's
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Reverse Trendelenburg position increases pressure on the perineum. This position will not relieve cord pressure. (B) Fowler's position increases perineal pressure. Cord pressure would not be relieved. (C) Trendelenburg position will decrease perineal pressure. Cord compression will be decreased and increase in fetal blood flow occurs. (D) Sims' position does not relieve pressure on cord or perineum.
NEW QUESTION # 129
A 1-year-old child is to receive an IM injection ordered by his pediatrician. He has fallen asleep in his mother's arms when the nurse approaches. Which approach is most appropriate at this time?
- A. Give the injection in the vastus lateralis site before the child awakens.
- B. Awaken the child first and give the injection in the dorsogluteal site.
- C. Ask the mother to place the child on the examination table and leave the room, and then give the injection in an appropriate site.
- D. Awaken the child first and give the injection in the ventrogluteal site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) If awakened first, the child will know that nothing painful will be done without the child being alerted. (B) The ventrogluteal site is a safe site for children because it is a large muscle free of major nerves and blood vessels. (C) The dorsogluteal site is not recommended in children who have not been walking for at least 1 year because the muscle is not fully developed. (D) The parent will be able to offer support and comfort during and after the injection.
NEW QUESTION # 130
A client calls the prenatal clinic to schedule an appointment. She states she has missed three menstrual periods and thinks she might be pregnant. During her first visit to the prenatal clinic, it is confirmed that she is pregnant. The registered nurse (RN) learns that her last menstrual period began on June 10. According to Nagele's rule, the estimated date of confinement is:
- A. January 10
- B. June 3
- C. March 17
- D. August 30
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Using Nagele's rule, count back 3 calendar months from the first day of the last menstrual period. The answer is March 10. Then add 7 days and 1 year, which would be March 17 of the following year. (B, C, D) This date is incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 131
A 42-year-old male client has been treated at an alcoholic rehabilitation center for physiological alcohol dependence. The nurse will be able to determine that he is preparing for discharge and is effectively coping with his problem when he shares with her the following information:
- A. "I know that I can only drink one or two drinks at social gatherings in the future, but at least I don't have to continue AA."
- B. "I really wasn't addicted to alcohol when I came here, I just needed some help dealing with my divorce."
- C. "It really wasn't my fault that I had to come here. If my wife hadn't left, I wouldn't have needed those drinks."
- D. "I know that I will not ever be able to socially drink alcohol again and will need the support of the AA group."
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation
Explanation:
(A) The client has insight into the severity of his alcohol addiction and has chosen one of the most effective treatment strategies to support him - Alcoholics Anonymous. (B) The client is still using denial and is not dealing with his alcohol addiction. (C) The client is exhibiting denial about his alcohol addiction and projecting blame on his divorce. (D) The client is projecting blame onto his wife for being in the hospital while still denying his alcohol addiction.
NEW QUESTION # 132
A client has a chest tube placed in his left pleural space to re-expand his collapsed lung. In a closed-chest drainage system, the purpose of the water seal is to:
- A. Provide a means to measure chest drainage
- B. Prevent fluid from entering the pleural space
- C. Provide an indicator of respiratory effort
- D. Prevent air from entering the pleural space
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) A chest tube extends from the pleural space to a collection device. The tube is placed below the surface of the saline so that air cannot enter the pleural space. (B) Fluid may enter the pleural space as a result of injury or disease. A chest tube may drain fluid from the pleural space, but the water seal is not involved in this. (C) Chest drainage should be measured, but the water seal is not involved in this. (D) Fluctuations in the tube in the water-sealed bottle will give an indication of respiratory effort, but that is not the purpose of the water seal.
NEW QUESTION # 133
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